4430 Antiarrhythmics Practice Exam

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• The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential is maintained by the influx of which ion?
• Which drug is NOT a Class 1c antiarrhythmic?
• Treatment of atrial/ventricular arrhythmias generally targets which clinical effect?
• In patients with atrial fibrillation and heart failure, aiming to control rate targets which clinical effect?
• Which antiarrhythmic is known for corneal deposits and optic neuropathy?
• AVNRT preferred drug?
• Class III antiarrhythmics are defined by blocking which ion channel?
• Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to Class 1c use?
• Ventricular Fibrillation is best described as
• What electrolyte management step is essential before starting QT-prolonging antiarrhythmics?
• Which antiarrhythmic requires thyroid and liver monitoring due to potential toxicity?
• What is the foundation of antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Digoxin is primarily used to achieve which clinical effect?
• Class III antiarrhythmics are primarily defined by blocking which ion channel?
• Which option lists the mechanisms commonly cited for arrhythmias?
• Name a Class Ic antiarrhythmic used for rhythm control in patients without structural heart disease.
• Which statement best describes a key mechanism of action for beta blockers on cardiac tissue?
• Which Class Ic antiarrhythmic is favored for rhythm control in patients without structural heart disease and has proarrhythmic risk?
• Magnesium is indicated as life-saving for which condition?
• Class IV antiarrhythmics primarily act as blockers of which channel, and what is their effect on AV conduction?
• Which electrolyte disturbances are particularly relevant to torsades de pointes when using QT-prolonging antiarrhythmics?
• Which antiarrhythmic has a very long half-life and is commonly used for rhythm control?
• Calcium channel blockers exert their effects on the heart by which mechanism?
• Which statement best describes T-type calcium channels?
• Long QT Syndrome primarily affects
• The goal for treatment of post myocardial infarction arrhythmia, notably ventricular tachycardia, is which clinical effect?
• Which statement best describes flecainide’s risk profile?
• Magnesium MOA
• When starting Class III agents, which safety program is often required in the United States for the most selective K+ blockers and why?
• Which of the following is a Class 1a antiarrhythmic agent?
• Ibutilide and Amiodarone are IV antiarrhythmics used for which purpose?
• Which ECG change is associated with Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs?
• An ectopic beat is usually
• What is a key safety step at initiation for Sotalol therapy?
• Which mechanism encompasses EADs and DADs?
• True or False: QT prolongation is a known risk associated with several Class Ia and Class III antiarrhythmics.
• Premature contractions are
• Adenosine treats SVT by activating which receptor leading to AV nodal block?
• Ibutilide's mechanism of action includes promoting inward Na current and blocking which potassium current?
• Which drug is a Class 1b antiarrhythmic agent?
• Which ion channel is primarily blocked by Class I antiarrhythmics?
• Which two IV antiarrhythmics are most commonly used for pharmacologic cardioversion of AF?
• Which statement about Quinidine is true?
• Mexiletine is the oral analog of which IV antiarrhythmic agent used for ventricular arrhythmias?
• Mexiletine is an analog of lidocaine with good oral bioavailability and hepatic metabolism. It is used to treat which conditions?
• What is a common reason to avoid Disopyramide in elderly patients?
• Which statement best describes when EADs occur?
• What causes the QRS complex?
• Which statement best describes Class 1a MOA in relation to ERP?
• Name two IV agents commonly used for pharmacologic cardioversion of AF.
• Which antiarrhythmic must be dosed according to CrCl and baseline QT for safe initiation and is often used with inpatient monitoring?
• Flecainide is contraindicated in which patient population due to risk after myocardial infarction?
• Beta blockers ________ myocardial oxygen demand.
• Propafenone is metabolized by which enzyme?
• Adenosine is the preferred drug in AVNRT.
• Which tissue condition are Class 1b antiarrhythmic agents preferred in?
• Which drug should be avoided in structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk?
• The goal when selecting a drug for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation is which clinical effect?
• Adenosine's clinical effect is most specifically used to treat which condition?
• L-type Ca channels are located in which tissues?
• What is the primary mechanism of action of adenosine in treating SVT?
• Which antiarrhythmic has a high risk of torsades de pointes and requires careful electrolyte management when used with other QT-prolonging drugs?
• Ventricular Fibrillation is a life-threatening condition requiring
• In atrial fibrillation, the goal of rhythm control is to achieve which clinical effect?
• Magnesium is used to treat torsades de pointes.
• True or False: Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia increase the risk of torsades de pointes with QT-prolonging antiarrhythmics.
• Which antiarrhythmic is commonly used for rhythm control in AF and VT with a long half-life?
• Lidocaine NOT true?
• T-type calcium channels are located at which cardiac regions?
• Which statement best describes L-type calcium channels?
• Torsades de pointes is best described as which type of arrhythmia?
• Which channels are sodium channels?
• Disopyramide is useful in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
• Which site is primarily affected by AV nodal actions of certain antiarrhythmic agents?
• Flecainide is a member of which Vaughan Williams class?
• Propafenone has which combination of properties?
• Adenosine exerts AV nodal effects through which mechanism?
• During resting potential, which ion channel is predominantly open?
• Which term best describes Atenolol, Acebutolol, and Metoprolol?
• Which statement correctly describes L-type calcium channels?
• Procainamide's major adverse effect beyond lupus-like syndrome includes which cardiac risk?
• What causes the T wave?
• Long QT Syndrome is associated with
• AF rhythm control: which drug is listed as a preferred option?
• Rhythm-control strategies are most associated with which clinical effect?
• Reentry in arrhythmias is best described as which of the following?
• Which physiologic effect is associated with Class Ic antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Class 1c antiarrhythmics produce which electrocardiographic change?
• Which beta blocker is a non-selective agent?
• Treating post-myocardial infarction ventricular tachycardia (VT) is associated with which clinical effect?
• Beta blockers are also known as __ rectifiers.
• Which antiarrhythmic is particularly favored for AF in LV dysfunction due to relatively safer profile?
• Which ECG change is associated with Class III antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Which drug class is associated with decreasing sympathetic activity?
• Which Class III antiarrhythmic is among the most selective K+ blockers and may require REMS?
• Flecainide is best suited for rhythm control in which patient population?
• Which statement accurately describes the risk associated with Class 1c antiarrhythmics after myocardial infarction?
• Adenosine terminates which arrhythmia?
• Which drug is an alkaloid derivative with strong anticholinergic and negative inotropic effects?
• Class II antiarrhythmic drugs affect which physiologic parameter?
• EADs mechanism: which of the following is a mechanism contributing to early afterdepolarizations?
• Which ion channel is primarily blocked by Class III antiarrhythmics?
• During Phase 2 (Plateau), which event occurs?
• Which statement about Class 1b antiarrhythmic agents is true?
• Procainamide is associated with which autoimmune-like syndrome with chronic use?
• Rate-control in atrial fibrillation not attempting rhythm conversion targets which clinical effect?
• VT preferred drug?
• Class 1c antiarrhythmics primarily depress which phase of the cardiac action potential?
• Which antiarrhythmic is used for chronic suppression of ventricular ectopy after MI?
• Which agent is used for AF, VT/VF, and WPW syndrome?
• Early afterdepolarizations (EADs) and delayed afterdepolarizations (DADs) timing: which statement is correct?
• ECG changes for Class 1a?
• EADs are linked to which syndromes?
• Which agent provides combined beta and alpha blockade?
• Which statement best describes DAD Mechanism?
• Which physiologic parameter is affected by Class II antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Which tissue is primarily affected by Class Ib antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Tachycardia and DADs?
• Which statement describes the MOA of potassium channel blockers?
• Which Class Ic antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in patients with structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk?
• Heart Block is defined as
• Which tissue is affected by Class Ib antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with beta blocker therapy?
• Which non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker is commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation?
• Which statement about Lidocaine is NOT true?
• Which of the following is a non-selective beta blocker?
• Atrial Fibrillation is described as
• What is a common long-term non-cardiac toxicity of amiodarone?
• Which antiarrhythmic possesses both beta-blocking and Class III activity and carries a risk of QT prolongation?
• Class IV agents for rate control are used to achieve which clinical effect?
• Which Class III antiarrhythmic is associated with torsades risk and requires REMS?
• In the CAST trial evaluating Class 1c antiarrhythmics, what was the primary finding?
• EADs worsened by which condition?
• What is the effect of Class 1b antiarrhythmic agents on the action potential duration?
• Hypokalemia ________ digoxin's toxicity.
• Where are T-type calcium channels located?
• Which antiarrhythmic is strongly associated with thyroid abnormalities and pulmonary toxicity due to tissue deposition?
• Which ECG change is associated with Class Ic antiarrhythmic drugs?
• ECG changes for Class 1b?
• Triggered activity includes which phenomena?
• Which site is affected by Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs, as well as adenosine and digoxin?
• During Phase 1 (Initial repolarization), which event occurs?
• Delayed afterdepolarizations (DADs) occur when?
• Calcium channel blockers are indicated for which type of arrhythmias?
• Which ion channel do class III antiarrhythmics such as sotalol and dofetilide primarily block?
• Which antiarrhythmic is the oral form used for chronic suppression of ventricular ectopy and post-MI VT in some patients?
• Which arrhythmia is reliably terminated by adenosine?
• SA node automaticity is triggered primarily through which ion channel type?
• Which antiarrhythmic is often used as first-line IV for hemodynamically unstable VT/VF when amiodarone is not suitable?
• Which antiarrhythmic is commonly used for rhythm control in patients without structural heart disease and carries proarrhythmic risk?
• During Phase 3 (Repolarization), which event contributes to repolarization?
• Procainamide's active metabolite is what?
• Disopyramide is eliminated by which organ?
• Which condition worsens DADs?
• The clinical effect most closely linked to controlling ventricular rate during tachyarrhythmias is which?
• Lidocaine is used for which type of arrhythmias?
• L-type calcium channels are responsible for the high-voltage, long-lasting depolarization that leads to contraction in which regions?
• Which statement about Flecainide is true?
• Sotalol therapy is associated with which adverse effects?
• Which clinical effect is targeted by drugs used for rate control (Class II)?
• During Phase 4 (Return to resting state), which mechanism restores ion gradients?
• Which beta blocker is a partial agonist?
• Delayed afterdepolarizations (DADs) are NOT linked to which of the following?
• Which drug is used for maintenance of sinus rhythm in atrial fibrillation and is a pure potassium channel blocker?
• Which class prolongs the QT interval on ECG?
• Lidocaine is preferred for acute management of which arrhythmias?
• T-type channels regulate the pace by initiating which electrical event?
• Dofetilide initiation requires what safety measures?
• Which of the following describes the effect of Class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs on heart rate?
• Which antiarrhythmic is preferred for chemical cardioversion of AF in WPW to avoid rapid conduction over the accessory pathway?
• Class II antiarrhythmics primarily function as which of the following?
• Disopyramide has pronounced anticholinergic effects. Name one common consequence.
• Which drug's initiation requires CrCl-based dosing?
• Procainamide is often chosen for AF with WPW because of its effect on the accessory pathway. True or False?
• Most upstrokes are ___ dependent.
• Amiodarone has multi-channel actions. Besides potassium channels, which two targets are affected?
• Which antiarrhythmic exhibits both beta-blocker and Class III activity?
• Which ECG change is associated with Class II antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Procainamide is eliminated in the _________
• Which Class Ia antiarrhythmic is known for QT prolongation and anticholinergic effects?
• Which Vaughan Williams class primarily blocks potassium channels?
• Adenosine terminates AV nodal dependent tachycardias by activating which receptor?
• Class I antiarrhythmics have what primary effect on conduction?
• Which beta blocker shows low lipid solubility?
• Which antiarrhythmic has multi-channel actions including sodium channels and beta-adrenergic receptors?
• Which statement about amiodarone is incorrect?
• With atrial depolarization complete, the impulse is delayed at which structure?
• Which beta-blocker is known for antiarrhythmic use but can cause bronchospasm in asthma/COPD patients?
• Metoprolol belongs to which class of antiarrhythmics?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between QT prolongation and torsades de pointes risk?
• What underlies the mechanism of delayed afterdepolarizations (DADs) in cardiac cells?
• Which statement best describes sotalol's action and risks?
• Class I antiarrhythmic agents primarily act as which of the following?
• Which class is associated with marked conduction slowing?
• Which waveform corresponds to atrial depolarization?
• AF rhythm control drug that is also used for VT?
• Which antiarrhythmic is described as a pure potassium channel blocker used for maintenance of sinus rhythm in atrial fibrillation?
• What is a major proarrhythmic concern with Class Ic drugs in patients with structural heart disease?
• Which IV antiarrhythmic commonly used for pharmacologic cardioversion of AF has long-term non-cardiac toxicity including photosensitivity?
• In ACLS, what is the first-line antiarrhythmic for pulseless VT/VF?
• Which clinical effect is most associated with management of atrial fibrillation in the context of heart failure?
• What ocular and pigmentary toxicities are associated with long-term amiodarone use?
• Which drug class is listed as a preferred option for AF rate control?
• Enhanced automaticity refers to which of the following?
• Which antiarrhythmic is commonly avoided in patients with structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk?
• Dofetilide characteristics describe which of the following?
• Which beta blocker is commonly used topically for glaucoma?
• Propafenone is used to restore and maintain sinus rhythm in paroxysmal atrial fibrillation/flutter and to treat SVT and selected life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. This statement is:
• Which drug exemplifies a beta blocker with combined beta and alpha blockade?
• Which condition is explicitly listed as a contraindication to beta blocker therapy?
• Which of the following is NOT a well-established cause of torsades de pointes?
• Which statement about the relationship between EADs and action potential duration is correct?
• The medication of choice for terminating AVNRT is:
• Ibutilide's mechanism and clinical use include which statement?
• Which physiologic process is affected by Class III antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Ibutilide used for pharmacologic cardioversion of AF also requires electrolyte monitoring due to torsades risk. Which option lists this drug first among choices?
• Which Class II antiarrhythmic is commonly used to slow AV nodal conduction during atrial tachyarrhythmias?
• Sotalol has dual activity as a beta-blocker and a Class III drug. What risk is increased with initiation?
• True or False: All antiarrhythmic drugs alter membrane ion conductance.
• Which antiarrhythmic is avoided in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy due to negative inotropic effects?
• Which drug is used as an oral antiarrhythmic for chronic ventricular ectopy suppression after MI?
• Which antiarrhythmic is notorious for causing pulmonary toxicity and thyroid dysfunction but requires thyroid and liver monitoring?
• Adenosine is most effective for which clinical effect?
• Which structure initiates atrial depolarization?
• Which drug is commonly used for AF cardioversion and is also a mainstay in ACLS for VT/VF?
• Which drug is used for chemical cardioversion in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
• Electrical impulses spread between cardiac cells via which structures?
• Which antiarrhythmic is used for rhythm control in AF without structural heart disease but has high proarrhythmic risk in underlying disease?
• Class 1a Antiarrhythmic Drugs MOA includes
• Which Vaughan Williams class of antiarrhythmics primarily blocks sodium channels?
• Which drug is a partial agonist beta blocker among the options?
• Which drug is a beta1-selective blocker among the options?
• Ibutilide is used for chemical cardioversion of which conditions?
• Which antiarrhythmic is avoided in structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk?
• What is the key mechanism by which adenosine terminates AV nodal dependent tachycardias?
• Which physiology is affected by Class Ia antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Cinchonism is a known adverse effect of which antiarrhythmic?
• During Phase 0 (Depolarization) of the cardiac action potential, which event occurs?
• Which of the following are Class 1c antiarrhythmics?
• Which drug class includes lidocaine and mexiletine?